This is not how it works. There is no much Jewish people being billionaire than from white or Christians communities.
The medieval assignation to moneylender was not a privilege : this was a convenient way for Christians to get rid of their debt in killing every jews in town. This how big project have been financed, like cathedrals.
Furthermore, money is not influence or power, army and means or productions are. And Jewish were precisely forbidden to have both. So they could be threat by force or discriminate by laws.
Jewish are note the exception, the large majority of us are part of the work force. In the beginning of the 20th century, lots of the jewish proletariat is organized as such (like in the Bund) or in another organization (Anarchist, Bolschevik, Social-democrats). Not because there is “a plan” but because of the rise of nationalism (and the threat of pogroms) and because there more precarious than the majority of the workers (sometimes because of discrimination, like in the Yiddishland, or because their family have been dispossessed).
After WWII, the part of proletariat in the Jewisch communities plummet, because their where in first line during the extermination. Even before nazis, other movement attack our people, organization and struggles, like the Endeck in Polonia.
I understand that those posts are made to refute antisemitism, but those premises are wrong, and is part of the antisemitic propaganda
Did you just say the reason Jewish people are wealthy is because the holocaust killed the poor ones?
Paragraphs don’t make what you just wrote true.
Trying to make anti-semitism about workers rights is you trying to co-opt the very real persecution of a people for your own aims and it’s fucking gross.
I think he means the pogroms that used to happen when everyone owed the jewish bankers a bunch of money. Easiest thing was to drive them out of town or kill them instead of paying them back.
His comment seems mostly true, just bad english has his conclusion a bit muddled.
Please do not over interpret if you have not understand. I’m sorry if my English is not enough.
I began my post in saying that it’s wrong to said that Jewish peoples are wealthy.
I may not have underline enough how much the precarity threat Jewish communities before this period. In the Yiddishland (where Jews were forced to live in the Russian Empire ), workers earn the third of the wage of workers in France or Germany. 20% of people have to rely on charity to live.
Saying that there is less precarity after the extermination is not saying that people are wealthy, or that this is a good thing.
This is not how it works. There is no much Jewish people being billionaire than from white or Christians communities. The medieval assignation to moneylender was not a privilege : this was a convenient way for Christians to get rid of their debt in killing every jews in town. This how big project have been financed, like cathedrals.
Furthermore, money is not influence or power, army and means or productions are. And Jewish were precisely forbidden to have both. So they could be threat by force or discriminate by laws.
Jewish are note the exception, the large majority of us are part of the work force. In the beginning of the 20th century, lots of the jewish proletariat is organized as such (like in the Bund) or in another organization (Anarchist, Bolschevik, Social-democrats). Not because there is “a plan” but because of the rise of nationalism (and the threat of pogroms) and because there more precarious than the majority of the workers (sometimes because of discrimination, like in the Yiddishland, or because their family have been dispossessed).
After WWII, the part of proletariat in the Jewisch communities plummet, because their where in first line during the extermination. Even before nazis, other movement attack our people, organization and struggles, like the Endeck in Polonia.
I understand that those posts are made to refute antisemitism, but those premises are wrong, and is part of the antisemitic propaganda
Did you just say the reason Jewish people are wealthy is because the holocaust killed the poor ones?
Paragraphs don’t make what you just wrote true.
Trying to make anti-semitism about workers rights is you trying to co-opt the very real persecution of a people for your own aims and it’s fucking gross.
I think he means the pogroms that used to happen when everyone owed the jewish bankers a bunch of money. Easiest thing was to drive them out of town or kill them instead of paying them back.
His comment seems mostly true, just bad english has his conclusion a bit muddled.
The plight of the Jewish people being a workers rights thing is what I’m getting at.
It’s a way to remove the cause of antisemitism and pretend it doesn’t exist.
My point specifically is that the argument to lump the Jewish people in and the holocaust in as a class struggle is icky.
They discussed another symptom of antisemitism that existed long before what they’re describing took place.
Please do not over interpret if you have not understand. I’m sorry if my English is not enough.
I began my post in saying that it’s wrong to said that Jewish peoples are wealthy.
I may not have underline enough how much the precarity threat Jewish communities before this period. In the Yiddishland (where Jews were forced to live in the Russian Empire ), workers earn the third of the wage of workers in France or Germany. 20% of people have to rely on charity to live. Saying that there is less precarity after the extermination is not saying that people are wealthy, or that this is a good thing.