• leisesprecher
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    10 hours ago

    As I recently saw in a video about bible translations: Greek used (uses?) generic masculine forms for plurals. So a mixed group of stewarts and stewardesses would be called “these stewarts”. If there’s no context added, it’s impossible to tell whether the group was actually all male or not.

      • leisesprecher
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        9 hours ago

        In many aspects English doesn’t distinguish between genders at all.

        I chose the words above specifically because they are gendered. I’m not a native speaker, but as far as I know, teacher, butcher, officer, warrior, president, welder, etc. can each mean male or female. There’s maybe a connotation, but the words are not gendered. English also has no concept of a grammatical gender. Articles, adjectives, etc. are gendered in most European languages.

        • Aqarius@lemmy.world
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          2 hours ago

          English absolutely has grammatical gender, it just defaults to “male” so much people forget there’s other options. For example, “teacheress” is a real word, it’s just so archaic that the male word now means both, same with how “you” is both singular and plural.

          • AngryCommieKender@lemmy.world
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            35 minutes ago

            I mean if you want to go that far, there’s an argument to be made that the gendered terms wifman, werman, man, woman, and men were all simplified, to the gender neutral term of man and the feminine specific term of woman. We seem to have gone back and forth linguistically.

          • leisesprecher
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            1 hour ago

            Take “The <noun> has a yellow <noun>”. Which gender do these nouns have? In German, I could tell you. Both articles and the adjective have a gender.

            Of course, you can use gendered nouns, but only a very small minority of nouns actually have female forms.

            • Aqarius@lemmy.world
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              43 minutes ago

              Being immediately identifiable isn’t the standard, for example in languages that don’t use the definite article (Slavic languages, for example) the first noun wouldn’t necessarily exhibit it’s grammatical gender, but it wouldn’t mean it doesn’t have one. Also, the brackets you used get parsed by boost as html tags.

              The very existence of gendered nouns and pronouns means English has gender. It’s just less noticeable because unlike the German “-innen” approach, English typically shoves most things into neuter and mostly defaults to male for persons and then hides it behind “he or she” or a singular “they”. You can argue it’s archaic or vestigial, and I’d agree, but it is there. Same how nouns don’t exhibit cases, but pronouns do. Compare:

              “The man stood there, the man’s hand on the coffee cup, the cup warming the man”.

              “He stood there, his hand on the coffee cup, the cup warming him.”

          • Mongostein@lemmy.ca
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            5 hours ago

            Nobody says waitman or actsman. I had to fight my phone’s autocorrect just to type those.

            • AngryCommieKender@lemmy.world
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              25 minutes ago

              No one uses Wifman and Werman anymore either. Doesn’t make them any less some of the last gendered nouns for humans, in English, since if one goes back that far man is neutral gendered, and while woman exists, it’s for a woman that is a spinster.

          • frezik@midwest.social
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            5 hours ago

            Consider that German and French gender basically everything. Your desk has a gender in those languages. English is almost genderless on comparison.